A music theory question

stayfreejc

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Dec 15, 2015
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Here's one for all you theory guru's. It's driving me nuts!

Example:

If I am playing in D minor and switch from a D minor chord to an A major (major V) then people tend to use the harmonic minor scale for the lead lines. Am I correct in saying that if you revolve the harmonic minor lead around the A note then technically you are playing the Phrygian Dominant mode as you are playing an A major chord and starting from the A note of the Harmonic minor scale (fifth note). Obviously modes are down to context, but surely playing A major then playing a lead run through the Harmonic Minor scale starting from A is Phrygian Dominant? I have never heard anybody mention this before so I am starting to think I am wrong.
 
Right, I think I see what your on about. You play an A major chord and then you play a lead noodle around the fifth fret, is that it?

Like this?

I have to be honest I have never heard of a Phrygian Dominant and, to be honest, I wish I never had. I just always call it noodling.

The above lesson taught me loads and I use it quite a lot. Impresses the bejeezuz out of the women :)
 
Right, I think I see what your on about. You play an A major chord and then you play a lead noodle around the fifth fret, is that it?

Like this?

I have to be honest I have never heard of a Phrygian Dominant and, to be honest, I wish I never had. I just always call it noodling.

Sorry I'm terrible at explaining myself. The Phrygian Dominant is the fifth mode of the harmonic minor scale. So if you play an A chord then that is the fifth chord of the harmonic minor scale. So if you start on the A note then you should technically be playing in the Phrygian dominant mode. In the same way that the fifth note of the major scale is the mixalydian mode.
 
What happened to a bloke with a banjo and harmonica sat in a wood playing blues, it's a simple thing? I reckon it's the boffins don't want us mere mortals making music so they make stuff up.
 
You are correct. It is Phrygian Dominant. That is pretty much Yngwie's favorite scale/mode.
 
Ahh, the over-complicated misconception of modes. Simplify. You're only shifting to D harmonic minor over the V7. Because you outline the V7 chord tones doesn't change the key/mode from D Harmonic Minor to A Phrygian Dominant. That would be saying the A7 is now the "root" chord.
 
Ahh, the over-complicated misconception of modes. Simplify. You're only shifting to D harmonic minor over the V7. Because you outline the V7 chord tones doesn't change the key/mode from D Harmonic Minor to A Phrygian Dominant. That would be saying the A7 is now the "root" chord.

Sorry I am confused. Most of the modal theory I have read says if you change chord and then make a point of using that chords root as the home note then you are pretty much playing the corresponding mode. So if you play C, D, E and you play C Ionian, D Dorian and E Phrygian then even though they are all in the C major diatonically, because you are emphasising each root note as if it was a new scale then you are playing modally. I no modes are more about context, but the whole point of modes or that people use different modes through out a song. Otherwise everything would just be named whatever the parent key is.
 
Hmm, that's definitely not what I said. I admit, I don't have a jar of glue ("not a clue" - cockney rhyming slang) so I'm out:confused:
 
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